What is the ruling regarding a man saying to his wife during the day in Ramadan: "By divorce, you will not enter the apartment again, and if one shaykh permits you, a million shaykhs will forbid you," then allowing her to enter after iftar, knowing that the wife was not menstruating but was ritually pure?

The majority of scholars hold the view that divorce occurs by an oath of divorce if the one who swore the oath breaks it, and this is the preponderant opinion. If a husband swears by divorce that his wife will not enter a specific apartment, then she is divorced from him, according to the majority of scholars, if she enters it. However, Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah said that he is obligated to pay an expiation for an oath if he did not intend divorce. Divorce pronounced during a period of purity in which intercourse occurred is considered effective according to the majority. The majority also hold the view that the husband cannot retract an oath of divorce, so his permission for his wife to enter the apartment does not prevent her divorce. Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah differed on this point. As for the husband's statement: "Even if one sheikh permits it for you, a million sheikhs will prohibit it for you," this is a matter of significant scholarly disagreement, and the correct approach is to refer to the Sharia courts in such matters.