Is a person's fatwa to himself valid regarding the non-occurrence of divorce if the wording was not added to the woman, literally or in meaning, based on doubt about the completion of the wording or it being a mental circumambulation?

The questioner's understanding is correct, in that divorce does not occur unless it is attributed to the wife, either explicitly or implicitly. Also, the divorce uttered by a person afflicted with obsessive thoughts, even if explicit, is not effective if these thoughts overwhelm his mind. The questioner is advised to disregard these obsessive thoughts and seek Allah's help.