Is a person's fatwa to himself valid regarding the non-occurrence of divorce if the wording was not added to the woman, literally or in meaning, based on doubt about the completion of the wording or it being a mental circumambulation?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The questioner's understanding is correct, in that divorce does not occur unless it is attributed to the wife, either explicitly or implicitly. Also, the divorce uttered by a person afflicted with obsessive thoughts, even if explicit, is not effective if these thoughts overwhelm his mind. The questioner is advised to disregard these obsessive thoughts and seek Allah's help.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/140033
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 140033
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy