Does the ruling regarding a husband saying to his wife: "By Allah, and I swear by Allah, if you do such and such, then you are forbidden to me," differ from his saying: "If you do such and such, you are forbidden," without mentioning the name of Allah, concerning expiation and the prohibition of the wife?

Scholars have differed concerning the ruling on one who says to his wife: "You are unlawful to me," or links that to an action, whether he swore an oath to that effect or not. What we issue fatwas on is: If he intended divorce, then a divorce occurs. If he intended ẓihār, then he is a muẓāhir. If he did not intend anything, or intended to abstain from intercourse, then he must offer expiation for an oath.