Does the ruling regarding a husband saying to his wife: "By Allah, and I swear by Allah, if you do such and such, then you are forbidden to me," differ from his saying: "If you do such and such, you are forbidden," without mentioning the name of Allah, concerning expiation and the prohibition of the wife?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Scholars have differed concerning the ruling on one who says to his wife: "You are unlawful to me," or links that to an action, whether he swore an oath to that effect or not. What we issue fatwas on is: If he intended divorce, then a divorce occurs. If he intended ẓihār, then he is a muẓāhir. If he did not intend anything, or intended to abstain from intercourse, then he must offer expiation for an oath.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/194819
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 194819
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- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Read the full answer on Ftawy