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Is it permissible for a woman to stipulate to the suitor that he not marry another wife, and what is the ruling on the marriage if the husband violates this condition, and what is the ruling on polygyny if it negatively affects the first wife's sexual satisfaction, and is the mere increase in physical pleasure a justification for polygyny in this era?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Scholars have differed regarding the validity of a wife stipulating in the marriage contract that her husband not marry another woman. The preponderant opinion is that it is a valid and binding condition. The evidence for this is the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, who said: "Indeed, the conditions most worthy of fulfillment are those by which you make intimate relations lawful." The meaning of the condition being binding is that the wife has the right to annul the marriage if the husband violates the condition. If the intent of the condition is to make the wife's divorce contingent upon her husband marrying another, then if the husband marries another woman, her divorce occurs, as in his statement: "If I marry another woman, then she is divorced." As for a man marrying another woman for the purpose of physical enjoyment, that is permissible.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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