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The question

Does a man marrying another woman constitute a violation of a verbal agreement not to marry another, thereby permitting the wife to seek divorce? And by doing so, would she fall under the Hadith: "Any woman who asks her husband for a divorce without any strong reason, the scent of Paradise will be forbidden to her"?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The conditions considered valid in marriage are those stipulated in the contract or prior to it. If a woman stipulates to the suitor that he must not marry another woman, he is obligated to fulfill this condition, as the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "Muslims are bound by their conditions, except for a condition that forbids what is lawful or permits what is unlawful." If the husband does not fulfill the condition, the wife has the right to annul the marriage.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
5665
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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