Is a man's statement to his wife: "Deny, and you are divorced," after she has already denied a past event, considered an immediate divorce due to its conditioning on a past matter, or a contingent divorce if he intended future denial, knowing that he did not intend divorce but rather prevention and threat?
As long as the questioner intended to make his wife's divorce contingent upon her future denial, and not upon her past denial, then he does not break his oath by what has passed, and his divorce does not take effect. For the validity of an oath depends on the intention of the swearer, as mentioned by Ibn Qudamah.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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