How is it that zakat is not obligatory on one who owns an agricultural crop whose value is many times over (millions, for example) under the pretext that it has not reached five wasqs, while it is obligatory on one who owns a crop whose value is much less (tens of thousands) merely because it has reached five wasqs, knowing that zakat is taken from the rich and returned to the poor?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The opinion of the majority of scholars is that the (minimum taxable amount) for crops and fruits is five awsuq (plural of wasq). If the harvest is sold and its price reaches the nisab, and a hawl (one lunar year) passes over it, then the of money and trade goods (‘urud) becomes obligatory on it (one-quarter of a tenth). The Hanafis, however, are of the view that zakat is obligatory on crops and fruits, whether in small or large quantities, without a nisab. The first opinion is the most preponderant.
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