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The question

What is the ruling regarding divorcing one's wife three times, given that the first and second divorces occurred during a period of purity in which intercourse took place, and the pronouncement of the second divorce was conditional, while the third divorce occurred during a period of purity in which intercourse did not take place, and then the wife menstruated the following day?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

We issue a concerning an innovated divorce (such as divorcing a wife during a period of purity in which intercourse occurred) that the divorce takes effect, though the one who performs it is sinful. If your statement "knowing that my wife made me lose control of myself" means that you were unaware of what you were saying, then your divorce is not considered valid. However, if it merely signifies intense anger, then the divorce is valid. Based on this, your wife has become irrevocably divorced from you (Baynunah Kubra) due to your divorcing her twice definitively and once conditionally.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
156504
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy