How can the verse, "And our God and your God is One," be reconciled with the fact that Christians have no knowledge of God, as stated in the verse, "they have no knowledge of it"? And what is the ruling on one who does not know that atheists know God exists and are arrogant, and that all of Adam's progeny affirmed God's Oneness in the realm of pre-existence? And is ignorance excused in this matter?

The noble verse: "They have no knowledge of it" does not refer to Christians, but rather to the polytheists of the Arabs, because the Meccan Quran was addressing them. The negation here does not apply to the knowledge of God, but rather to the knowledge of the aforementioned statement, which is their claim that angels are daughters of God; meaning, they have no knowledge of that statement, as Ibn Ashour mentioned. And the knowledge of the atheists' arrogance and people's affirmation of God's Lordship in the realm of particles (dharr) is not obligatory, and one is not sinful for being ignorant of it.