Is it permissible for a woman to stipulate to her husband that she name all their children and that he not marry another woman?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Naming the newborn is the father's right, unless the woman stipulated in the marriage contract that she has this right and the husband agreed to it. This is because the default for conditions is validity, and "Muslims are bound by their conditions."
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/5024
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- Original fatwa ID
- 5024
- Imported
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