Does the divorce that was issued by the husband while he was angry, in which he repeated the word "I divorced her" three times, along with his saying "she is forbidden to me" three times also, and then the husband had intercourse with her that same night after reconciliation, constitute an irrevocable divorce or not?

If the husband utters divorce and prohibition while in a state of extreme anger, not knowing what he is saying, then nothing is incumbent upon him. However, if he is aware of what he is saying, the ruling is detailed as follows:

Firstly: Divorce: If the husband repeats "I have divorced her" three times, and he intended confirmation, then one divorce is incumbent upon him. But if he intended to initiate divorce with the three phrases (tasis), then three divorces occur, and his wife becomes unlawful for him until she marries another husband. This is the view of the majority of scholars. However, Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah holds that only one divorce is incumbent in all cases. If three divorces occur, then his statement "I have forbidden her" three times is considered null and void.

Secondly: Prohibition: If the husband repeats the prohibition three times, it refers back to his intention. If he intended divorce, then what has been mentioned applies. If he intended ẓihār, then one ẓihār expiation is incumbent upon him. If he intended an oath by Allah, or he intended nothing, then one oath expiation is incumbent upon him.

In the case of three divorces occurring, the wife becomes a stranger to him, and cohabiting with her is unlawful. Presenting the Qur'an and making Allah a witness emphasizes his oath, but it does not affect the legal ruling. It is advised to refer to the Sharia court.