Is a person who has rented out an apartment, which he himself is renting under a lease-to-own agreement from a bank, committing a sin, and what should he do in the case of sin?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
An " muntahia bittawleek" (lease ending in ownership) contract is permissible if it adheres to guidelines. The basic principle is to assume the validity of a Muslim's transactions. It is not a condition for the validity of the lease that the lessor owns the asset; rather, it is sufficient that he owns the usufruct (manfa'ah) through a lease contract.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/186280
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 186280
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy