How can one respond to the specious argument that Islam has granted rights to wives but has not obligated men to uphold them, citing as evidence that hadiths mandate punishment for a wife who falls short but do not mandate punishment for a man who falls short in his wife's rights, and asking why a man is not punished if he angers his wife, and why a woman's opinion is not equal to her husband's?

A wife's obedience to her husband is not absolute; rather, it is restricted to what is good and within the bounds of Islamic law. Therefore, she is not obligated to obey him in anything that constitutes disobedience to Allah or that harms her. Some scholars have limited this obedience to matters related to marriage and its extensions only. What the questioner mentioned, that Islam has stripped women of their rights, is incorrect. Women have many rights, and a woman can refer her case to a Sharia judge if her husband falls short in fulfilling her rights, such as maintenance and conjugal relations, or if he wrongs her.