What is the ruling on someone who says, "My family is forbidden to me as a حرم if I tell anyone," and then tells someone else?

Scholars have differed regarding one who swears by the unlawfulness of his wife and then breaks his oath: Is it ẓihār (a pre-Islamic form of divorce), or a divorce, or is nothing binding upon him? The more preponderant opinion is that it depends on the swearer's intention: if he intended ẓihār, then it is ẓihār; if he intended something else, then it is as he intended. The questioner is advised to refer to the Sharia courts in his country.