Would my wife be considered forbidden to me until the Day of Judgment, if I uttered that in anger and then regretted it, and is intercourse permissible before atoning for this prohibition, and how can expiation be performed in a country where there are no needy people?
If a husband utters words prohibiting his wife while in a state of extreme anger that deprives him of awareness, then there is nothing binding upon him. However, if he was aware of what he was saying, then scholars have differed regarding the ruling on such a prohibition. The Fatwa issued by us distinguishes between whether he intended divorce, Dhihar (analogical divorce), or an oath. If the husband did not intend divorce or Dhihar by his utterance of prohibition, then he must offer the expiation for breaking an oath: feeding ten poor persons or clothing them. If he cannot find them, then he must fast for three days. He may delegate someone else to feed the poor.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/121915