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The question

Would my wife be considered forbidden to me until the Day of Judgment, if I uttered that in anger and then regretted it, and is intercourse permissible before atoning for this prohibition, and how can expiation be performed in a country where there are no needy people?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a husband utters words prohibiting his wife while in a state of extreme anger that deprives him of awareness, then there is nothing binding upon him. However, if he was aware of what he was saying, then scholars have differed regarding the ruling on such a prohibition. The issued by us distinguishes between whether he intended divorce, Dhihar (analogical divorce), or an oath. If the husband did not intend divorce or Dhihar by his utterance of prohibition, then he must offer the expiation for breaking an oath: feeding ten poor persons or clothing them. If he cannot find them, then he must fast for three days. He may delegate someone else to feed the poor.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
121915
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy