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The question

How can one scientifically and convincingly respond to the argument that demanding the freedom to wear the hijab in Western countries, while its wearing is enforced in some Islamic countries, balances the scales and constitutes interference in freedoms?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A zealous Muslim is pained by the war waged against Islam and its rituals by some who claim to be part of it. These individuals fight chastity and modesty, prohibit head coverings, and even punish for them. This is more severe and greater than the prohibition of face coverings by infidel nations. There is no country in the Muslim world that obliges an infidel woman to cover her body except Saudi Arabia. We do not blame infidels for prohibiting face coverings if their motive is their religion, but they claim secularism and personal freedom, yet they fight a religious ritual, permit the removal of clothing, and prohibit modesty. It is not permissible for the ruler to allow the exposure of 'awrah (intimate parts) and ostentatious display for anyone. He is responsible for every sin committed under his authority. There is no difference between a Muslim woman and an infidel woman in prohibiting them from ostentatious display and nudity. The appearance of infidel women in revealing clothing in a Muslim society is impermissible, as it offends people's feelings and harms their souls, whether they are Muslims or infidels.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
26968
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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