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Does a divorce occur if the husband allows his wife to communicate with her family after he swore by divorce that she would not communicate with them, to deter them due to their problems and interference, and is there expiation or sin for him for preventing her from them, and who is more entitled to satisfaction: the husband or the family?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

1. Oaths of divorce are forbidden. The majority of scholars hold that divorce occurs upon breaking such an oath, whereas Ibn Taymiyyah is of the opinion that its expiation is the expiation for an oath if the intention was merely to prevent or encourage something. Intention specifies an oath; thus, if you intended a specific duration for the oath, divorce does not occur after that duration expires.

2. Harming the wife's family is impermissible. The wife should not be prevented from visiting her family due to a dispute between you, unless they are corrupting her against you. It is better to treat them kindly even if they treat you poorly, in accordance with the Almighty’s saying: ﴿Repel evil with that which is best.﴾

3. Obeying the husband in what is good is more incumbent upon the wife than obeying her parents. However, the husband must exercise his right in a reasonable manner, so he should not prevent her from maintaining ties with her parents and visiting them unless there is a fear of harm. The husband has the right not to permit entry into his house to anyone he dislikes, even if they are the wife’s parents.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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