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The question

Does a divorce take place if you swore to your wife by saying, "Upon divorce, if anyone touches anything in the house, I will break it or burn it," intending by "it" dishes and carpets, and you intended it as a threat and were angry, while in full control of your mental faculties? And if it does not take place, what should you do as an expiation for this oath?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Regarding your oath by divorce concerning the destruction of objects touched by someone, it depends on specifying your intention concerning the toucher, the touched object, and the type of touch. If the sworn-upon act occurs in the manner you intended, and this object is destroyed, then you have fulfilled your oath, and there is nothing upon you in terms of the oath itself. However, you remain accountable for destroying and wasting property. If this object is not destroyed, then you have broken your oath. Divorce then occurs according to the majority of scholars. Some, like Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah, hold that swearing by divorce necessitates an expiation for an oath (kaffarat ) upon breaking it if the swearer did not intend to effect a divorce. Anger does not prevent divorce from occurring unless it reaches a specific state.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
108376
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy