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The question

Does the prohibition uttered by the husband in a state of extreme anger take effect?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The prohibition of a wife depends on the husband's intention. If he intended divorce, then it is a divorce. If he intended ẓihār (a form of divorce by injurious comparison), then it is ẓihār. If he intended an oath, or did not intend anything, then an expiation for an oath (kaffārat yamīn) is due. The evidence for this is Allah's saying: "O Prophet, why do you prohibit what Allah has made lawful for you, seeking to please your wives? And Allah is Forgiving and Merciful. Allah has already ordained for you the dissolution of your oaths. And Allah is your protector, and He is the Knowing, the Wise." If the phrasing mentioned indicates a promise, or if the husband was in a state of extreme anger, not knowing what he was saying, then nothing results from his words.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
117326
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy