Is what Dan Brown's book "The Da Vinci Code" stated about Jesus, son of Mary, marrying Mary Magdalene and their having a daughter named Sarah true according to Islamic narrations? If not, why did Jesus, son of Mary, peace be upon him, not marry?

There is no evidence in the Qur’an or Sunnah that proves or disproves the marriage of the Messiah, Isa (peace be upon him). However, the Holy Qur’an indicated that marriage is among the practices of the messengers. The verse (And We have already sent messengers before you and made for them wives and offspring) [Ar-Ra’d/38] does not preclude the exception of some of them. The fact that Isa and Yahya (peace be upon them) did not marry is a perfection in their right. And "حصوراً" (chaste/confined) in reference to Yahya does not mean incapability, but rather abstention from desires or immunity from sins. The inability to marry is a deficiency, and the virtue lies in suppressing desires while being capable of fulfilling them, which was the case for Isa (peace be upon him), or it was a sufficiency from Allah, like Yahya (peace be upon him). As for what is mentioned in narratives like "The Da Vinci Code," it is nothing but an attempt to stir controversy. For Muslims, whether the Messiah married or not does not diminish his status in any way.