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هل كانت الأمم السابقة تمتنع عن الأكل والشراب في صيامها؟

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The interpretations of the commentators regarding the verse: (just as it was prescribed for those before you) are summarized in two opinions:

First: That the similitude is in the ruling and description of fasting, not in its number, and this was abrogated by His saying: (It has been made lawful for you the night of fasting to approach your wives), thus the verse distinguished between the fasting of the People of the Book and the Muslims.

Second: That the similitude is in the number of days, and there are two opinions on this:

1. That the fasting of this Ummah was three days of every month, and this was obligatory upon those before them, then it was abrogated by Ramadan.

2. That Ramadan was enjoined upon those before us, for it has been reported that the Christians increased and decreased its fasting, and this opinion renders the verse firm and not abrogated.

Imam Al-Nahhas chose that the fasting of those before us was like our fasting in the month of Ramadan, and they changed it, and Al-Qurtubi supported this with a weak Hadith from Daghal bin Hanzalah.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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