Did earlier nations abstain from food and drink in their fasting?
The interpretations of the commentators regarding the verse: (just as it was prescribed for those before you) are summarized in two opinions:
First: That the similitude is in the ruling and description of fasting, not in its number, and this was abrogated by His saying: (It has been made lawful for you the night of fasting to approach your wives), thus the verse distinguished between the fasting of the People of the Book and the Muslims.
Second: That the similitude is in the number of days, and there are two opinions on this:
1. That the fasting of this Ummah was three days of every month, and this was obligatory upon those before them, then it was abrogated by .
2. That Ramadan was enjoined upon those before us, for it has been reported that the Christians increased and decreased its fasting, and this opinion renders the verse firm and not abrogated.
Imam Al-Nahhas chose that the fasting of those before us was like our fasting in the month of Ramadan, and they changed it, and Al-Qurtubi supported this with a weak from Daghal bin Hanzalah.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/47700
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 47700
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy