Is a person considered to have broken his oath if he swore not to ask for a service or help from a specific person, then that person asked him for help, and does this condition differ from the first condition?
We advise the questioner to avoid swearing by divorce, as it is an oath of the wicked, and because of the potentially undesirable consequences that may result from it. We inform him that his assistance to her was not included in the oath, neither in wording nor in meaning, because he intended to protect himself from humiliation and the disgrace of begging, and he is the giver in this situation. Therefore, it does not fall under the oath, no divorce occurs by it, and no expiation is required of him.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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