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Does the divorce issued by the husband with his words: "Consider yourself divorced by me" take effect, knowing that he uttered them two days after consummating the marriage with his wife?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

If a husband curses his wife, it is a reprehensible act, for cursing is not characteristic of a believer. Cursing a specific individual is impermissible, except for one who died as a disbeliever. The sin is magnified when cursing one's wife.

As for the mentioned divorce pronouncements, they are ambiguous (kinayat) and do not constitute a divorce unless intended. It is difficult to determine the number of divorces without referring to the husband and inquiring about his intention.

A man divorcing his wife during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her is an innovated divorce (talaq bid'i), yet it is valid according to the majority of jurists.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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