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Are the children from the first wife entitled to demand money for the house that the second wife sold, or for the building that was constructed on the house that the husband transferred to her, knowing that their siblings from the second wife had already given them their share of the shop's inheritance?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

It is permissible for a person to divide his wealth as a gift during his lifetime, and he is obligated to be just among his children, but not among his children and his wife. If the wife sells her residence which the husband helped her purchase, and gives the husband part of the price, then if she transfers ownership of it to him, it is a gift from her to him. If she gives it to him to build a floor for her or for her children, then the floor belongs to her or to them, and he is an agent. If the husband builds the floor with money the wife gifted to him and he gifted it to her, then it is hers. If he builds it with his own money and gifts it to his children, he is obligated to be just among them, by dividing the value of the two homes among all the children. However, if he gifts it to the wife, or she gives him the money to build for her or for her children, then the children of the first wife have no share in it. The father's division of the two homes should be accepted if the children agree to it. Upon the death of the tenant, the right of usufruct over the leased property transfers to the heirs until the end of the contract.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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