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The question

Is a wife sinful if she seeks divorce due to the immorality of her husband's first wife, whom he took back?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It is not permissible to describe a Muslim as a transgressor without clear proof. The mere fact that the husband took back his first wife does not permit the (second) wife to seek divorce, as long as the husband does not neglect her rights and deals justly between them, based on the Prophet’s (peace be upon him) saying: "Any woman who asks her husband for divorce without any compelling reason, the scent of Paradise will be forbidden to her." However, if it is proven with clear evidence that the first wife is committing immoral acts and your husband is content with that, then this is a defect that permits you to seek divorce from him.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
97360
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy