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What is incumbent upon a husband if he has intercourse with his wife, to whom he said: "You are unlawful to me until the end of the month," intending to abstain from intimate relations with her, whether at her request or without her request, before the end of the agreed-upon month?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The preponderant opinion is that if a man has intercourse with his wife before the month has passed, whether she asked him or not, the expiation for ẓihār mentioned in the Quran becomes obligatory upon him: freeing a slave, and if he cannot find one, then fasting for two consecutive months, and if he is unable to do so, then feeding sixty poor persons. However, if the month passes without him having intercourse with her, then nothing is incumbent upon him.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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