Is it permissible for a Muslim woman to seek a judicial divorce after she has been Islamically divorced and entered her waiting period ('iddah)?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If a woman is divorced in a Sharia-compliant manner, there is no harm in her documenting this in a secular (non-Islamic) court if there is no Sharia court in her country. This is because it serves to establish rights, resolve disputes, and enable her to remarry. The Second Conference of the Assembly of Muslim Jurists of America (AMJA) stipulated that there is no harm in documenting a Sharia-compliant divorce before secular courts, that Islamic centers serve the role of Sharia judiciary in resolving disputes, and that resorting to secular courts to legally terminate a marriage does not, by itself, terminate it Islamically.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/10711
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 10711
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy