Is it permissible for an impotent person to marry, what is the ruling on marriage for a person who has sexual desire but also a congenital defect in his organs, and would his not marrying be considered disobedience to his mother?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A impotent man is one who is unable to perform sexual intercourse in the vagina, and he must disclose this at the time of marriage. If he does not disclose it, the wife has the right to seek separation. The majority of scholars hold that an impotent man is given a one-year grace period, and if he does not recover, separation occurs between them at the woman's request. Whoever has a congenital defect that harms sexual intercourse must inform the woman he intends to marry. The questioner should inform his mother of his defect to avoid her thinking he is disobedient.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- 88647
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- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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