Is it permissible for a man to have intercourse with his wife after she has become pure from menstruation, but she has not found water for ritual bathing, and this is before her ghusl without any stipulation?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If a woman becomes pure from menstruation, it is not permissible for her husband to have intercourse with her until she purifies herself. If she does not find water and performs (dry ablution), then intercourse becomes permissible according to the Shafi'is and Hanbalis (which is the dominant view). As for the Malikis, the well-known opinion among them is that it is not permissible even after tayammum due to the absence of water, though some of them favored permissibility.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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