Why did the word "yatmithhunna" (يطمثهن) in verse 56 of Surat Ar-Rahman differ from its common linguistic meaning, and is it possible that it was originally "lam yata'hunna" (لم يطأهن)?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
This statement impugns the Holy Quran and casts doubt on its authenticity, whereas Allah has guaranteed its preservation. The Quran was transmitted through continuous, widespread attestation (tawatur) and preserved in hearts, and its writing served for further documentation. The word "al-tamth" (الطمث) in the Arabic language has multiple meanings, including deflowering and touching (or smearing), and there are linguistic evidences for this in the speech of Arabs. Therefore, the use of the word in the Quran is correct, and one must beware of the fallacies of those who seek to invalidate it.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/170168
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- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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