Is the husband considered a liar and manipulative of religion for claiming marriage with the intention of divorce, and is the wife entitled to seek divorce based on that?

For a marriage to be valid, it is not a condition for a man to inform his second wife that he has a previous wife, and he is not considered a liar merely for not informing her. However, if he explicitly tells her that he does not have a first wife, then he has lied, and lying is forbidden. This action alone is not considered proof of a defect in his religiosity, and the wife is not permitted to seek divorce for this reason, except in specific cases where seeking divorce is permissible. Even if there is a justification for seeking divorce, the wife should not rush into it.