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Is the phrase "Whoever does not want to hear my words, I have no desire for them" considered a divorce, given that the speaker did not intend divorce by it but rather intimidation and discipline, and if it is a divorce, what is the way to get the wife back?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The husband is advised to take back his wife and rectify her defiance through legitimate means: admonition, then abandonment in bed, then non-brutal beating. If these do not work, an arbiter from his family and an arbiter from her family should be sent. The husband should be reminded of the Hadith: "The best of you is the best to his family," and the wife should be reminded of the Hadith: "The best of women is she who pleases you when you see her, obeys you when you command her, and safeguards your absence concerning herself and your property," and that the prayer of a woman whose husband is displeased with her when she sleeps does not rise above her ears, and of Aisha's saying: "O assembly of women, if you knew the rights of your husbands over you, each one of you would wipe the dust from his face with her own face." Threatening with divorce does not constitute divorce by consensus.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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