To what extent is it valid to infer from the verse: "And if you ask [the Prophet's wives] for anything, ask them from behind a screen," that mixing [between genders] is forbidden, considering that it was revealed concerning the Mothers of the Believers, and that specific cases do not serve as general evidence, and that the context and preceding verses are definitive, and [considering] what is narrated in Al-Bukhari regarding the mixing of men and women during ablution? And does the statement that the hijab was legislated to differentiate between free women and slave women affect the generality of the ruling on mixing?

The noble verse that addresses the Mothers of the Believers concerning hijab includes all women of the Ummah, because the address of the Prophet, peace be upon him, encompasses the entire Ummah unless specified otherwise. The verse alludes to the reason for the ruling, which is the purity of hearts, in His (Allah's) saying: "That is purer for your hearts and their hearts." This reason generalizes its ruling; it is not restricted to the wives of the Prophet, peace be upon him.

Furthermore, the subsequent verse, which negates sin for women for not veiling in front of their fathers and sons, applies to all women and is not specific to the Mothers of the Believers.

As for what has been reported about men and women performing wudu' from the same well, Ibn Hajar interpreted the mingling after the hijab verse as being for wives and mahrams. And it refutes those who say that hijab is only for differentiating between free women and slave women, because the verse explained hijab by the purity of hearts.