Is it permissible to adopt the view of Ibn Taymiyyah that marriage is contracted by what people consider a marriage, in the event that the contract was concluded in the presence of the father, husband, and two witnesses, with their signatures, and with the reading of the contract which stated "married according to the Sunnah of Allah and His Messenger," knowing that there were prior intrusive thoughts about the validity of the contract?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The preponderant view, according to us, is that the utterance of offer and acceptance is a condition for the marriage contract. However, there is no blame on whoever adopts the view of Ibn Taymiyyah, who permits marriage without such an utterance. In any case, the child is attributed to his father by the consensus of Muslims if the husband believed in the validity of the marriage in which he had intercourse.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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