Is my second marriage, after three divorces, considered invalid, based on a later fatwa declaring the first divorce void due to lack of intention, knowing that my ex-husband uttered the explicit word of divorce?

The majority of scholars hold the view that divorce (talaq) occurs with explicit wording, even if there was no intention, and this is the prevalent fatwa. However, it is narrated from Imam Ahmad ibn Hanbal and Ibn Hazm Al-Dhahiri that explicit divorce does not occur without intention. So, if the husband consults people of knowledge and some of them issue a fatwa that the divorce did not occur based on this opinion, and you return to him based on the validity of this fatwa, then there is no blame upon you both. But if you return to him without being reassured by the fatwa, then it is obligatory for you to repent.