Does divorce occur with the statement "I agree" in response to the wife's request for divorce, while the husband did not intend divorce but rather said it in response to her words?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the husband did not intend divorce by his saying "I agree," then no divorce takes place. It is also impermissible for the wife to seek divorce without a legitimate Shar'i reason.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/105961
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 105961
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy