Does divorce occur with the statement "I agree" in response to the wife's request for divorce, while the husband did not intend divorce but rather said it in response to her words?
If the husband did not intend divorce by his saying "I agree," then no divorce takes place. It is also impermissible for the wife to seek divorce without a legitimate Shar'i reason.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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