Do the husband's attempts to reconcile with his wife, using words that indicate the validity of reconciliation, without him knowing that reconciliation does not require her consent, constitute a valid religious reconciliation?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
A man's revocation of divorce (rajʿah) is valid before the completion of his wife's waiting period (ʿiddah) if he pronounces an explicit formula for revocation, such as "I have revoked you," or "I have taken you back," or "I have returned you to my marital bond," even if he did not intend it. However, if the wording is an implicit expression (kināyah) that could signify revocation or something else, the revocation is valid if he intended revocation. The validity of the revocation does not require the wife's consent or knowledge, nor does it need a guardian (walī) or a dowry (ṣadāq). It is advisable to refer to the Sharia judge to rule on the matter.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/103704
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 103704
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy