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The question

Is it considered a breach of an oath if a person swears not to take a sum of money, and then his son takes the aforementioned sum from him, and not he himself?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The summary of the answer: Breaking the oath here depends on the intention of the one who swore it. If his intention by the oath was that he himself would not take anything from the patient, then he does not break his oath if his son takes the money. However, if he intended that neither he nor his son would benefit from the money, then he has broken his oath and must offer expiation. This is because an oath is based on the intention of the one who swore it, and generalizing the intention for a specific wording is considered valid according to the preponderant opinion.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
130788
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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