Do the three divorces issued by the husband count, considering that the first was at the mother’s request and the couple returned with a new contract without the husband saying, "I take you back," and the second came immediately after the wife hit her husband, and the third was due to the wife’s intense insistence, saying, "Divorce me, divorce me"?

The first divorce (talaq) is explicit and effective. If the husband has entered into a new marriage contract during the wife's waiting period ('iddah), some scholars have held that the revocability is achieved by uttering the word "marriage," as mentioned by Ibn Qudamah. Revocability is also achieved by the husband having intercourse with the wife during the 'iddah, according to the preponderant opinion. As for the second and third divorces, both are explicit and effective, unless the husband uttered the divorce while unaware of what he was saying due to extreme anger, in which case his divorce does not take effect.