Is the wife an oppressor or oppressed in the aforementioned situation, and has the divorce occurred?
Disputes are adjudicated in courts or by their representatives, as they are best equipped to hear all parties and issue rulings based on evidence, whereas a only hears from one side. If a husband does not provide for his wife, harms her by striking and insulting her, and seeks to take her money, then he is an oppressor. Such actions contradict the good companionship enjoined in His Almighty's saying: "And live with them honorably." He has no right to claim poverty to evade maintenance. The husband's mother is not permitted to interfere between the spouses in a way that spoils their relationship; rather, honor should be shown to in-laws. As for divorce, it does not require being written to take effect; it occurs simply by the husband uttering it, though documenting it is preferable to avoid disputes.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 190588
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy