Is the husband's intention that divorce would not occur unless the wife went to her family's home without his permission considered legally valid, such that divorce would not occur if he later gave her permission?

If a husband says to his wife: "You are divorced if you go to your family's house," and he intended to prevent her from going without his permission, then he does not break his oath if she goes with his permission. This is because the husband's intention in his oath takes precedence over the apparent wording, and it particularizes the general wording and restricts the absolute, as mentioned by Ibn Qudamah and Al-Buhuti.