Is it permissible for a husband to forbid his wife from going out with her friends by saying: "You are unlawful to me if you go out with the girls," while she is in her 'iddah period after a revocable divorce, and he has not yet taken her back?
If the divorce occurs before consummation and before privacy, it is an irrevocable divorce by scholarly consensus, and resumption [of the marriage] is not permissible except with a new contract, and there is no waiting period (ʿiddah) for you. However, if the divorce occurs before consummation but after privacy, where intercourse was possible, the majority of scholars consider it an irrevocable divorce, whereas the Hanbalis consider it a revocable divorce. A woman observing the waiting period (ʿiddah) after a revocable divorce is treated like a wife as long as she is in her ʿiddah; thus, divorce and ẓihār (a statement by which a husband likens his wife to a prohibited female relative) can still affect her. If a man prohibits his wife to himself but does not say "like my mother" or "on my mother's back," there is a difference of opinion among jurists. The most preponderant opinion is that if he intended divorce, ẓihār, or an oath, then what he intended is valid. If he did not intend anything, he must pay the expiation for an oath.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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