Is a divorce considered arbitrary if it was caused by the wife's family and her husband in her absence? And does the ruling on the divorce of an angry person who does not intend to utter the words of divorce differ from one who is fully aware of what he is saying?

"Nothing is incumbent upon knowing whether the divorce was arbitrary or not, because it is in the husband's hand and takes effect whenever he pronounces it in a valid manner. If the husband did not intend to utter the divorce, then nothing is binding upon him, because intention is one of the pillars of divorce. However, if he pronounced the divorce intentionally and was aware of what he was saying, then his divorce is effective. So, the matter revolves around comprehension and the intention to utter the divorce."