Is it permissible for a husband to divorce his wife who has no desire for intercourse and is harmed by it, what are her legitimate rights after divorce, and is the husband sinful if he keeps her out of consideration for her family, who are memorizers of the Quran?
There is no sin upon the husband for divorcing his wife who abstains from the marital bed, and she retains all the rights of a divorcée. However, keeping her is better if it does not harm his religious commitment, while attempting to solve her problem. It is not permissible for a woman to deny her husband his right to the marital bed, and her lack of pleasure is not an excuse; solutions for her sexual frigidity must be sought. If he divorces her, she has all the rights of a divorcée. Keeping her for other virtues, such as the goodness of her family, is better, for a believer does not dislike a believing woman for disliking one trait if he is pleased with another. If keeping her does not harm the husband's religious commitment, then he should keep her and try to solve her problem, or marry another if he can have more than one wife. If he cannot have more than one wife, and she continues to abstain while he needs another, then there is no harm in divorcing her and marrying another.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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