What is the ruling regarding a man saying to someone other than his wife, "This girl is forbidden to me through her offspring," while intending his wife?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A man's prohibition of his wife upon himself depends on his intention. If he intended divorce, it counts as such. If he intended ẓihār (a pre-Islamic form of divorce by likening one's wife to a forbidden female relative), it counts as such, and he must offer its expiation. If he intended it as an oath, or had no specific intention, it counts as an oath, and he must offer its expiation. This takes effect merely by uttering the words, whether the wife is present or absent.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/95091
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 95091
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy