Does a divorce take effect if a man says "I divorce her" meaning "I leave her to do as she pleases," and he was referring to his wife?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
What the man said to his brother does not constitute a divorce of his wife. One should be wary of obsessive thoughts (waswasah) concerning divorce and other matters. Persisting in such obsessive thoughts opens a door for Satan to corrupt affairs. He should seek Allah's help, turn away from these whisperings, and focus on what benefits him in his religious and worldly life.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/101701
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 101701
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy