Did a divorce take place based on the husband's statement that he divorced his wife, even though neither spouse remembers the exact wording used, and must the wife remind the husband of the reason for their quarrel to recall the words, despite her fear of problems?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
An explicit divorce, such as "you are divorced," takes effect without the need for an intention, and no consideration is given to an intention of threat or intimidation. However, if the wording is allusive, like "go to your family," it does not take effect except with an intention. An explicit divorce does not take effect if the wording was uttered in a state of extreme anger. If the spouses doubt the wording of the divorce, the marriage remains the original state, because divorce does not take effect through doubt.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/7727
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 7727
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy