Does a triple divorce take effect if the one who divorced his wife was ignorant of the rulings of marriage and divorce, and is this view attributed to the Shafi'is?

We do not know how this divorce occurred. If it was by repeating the word of divorce without separation and intending emphasis thereby, then it is considered a single divorce. But if he intended to initiate a divorce each time, then three divorces occurred. If he uttered the three [divorces] at once, then three divorces are binding upon him according to the four schools of thought, and one according to Ibn Taymiyyah. These rulings do not differ between the knowledgeable and the ignorant, unless the ignorant person is excused by compulsion, and there is no distinction between them in the Shafi'i school. Therefore, this man's fatwa (definition) is invalid.