Does the divorce issued by the husband with his words: "Consider yourself divorced by me" take effect, knowing that he uttered them two days after consummating the marriage with his wife?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If a husband curses his wife, it is a reprehensible act, for cursing is not characteristic of a believer. Cursing a specific individual is impermissible, except for one who died as a disbeliever. The sin is magnified when cursing one's wife.
As for the mentioned divorce pronouncements, they are ambiguous (kinayat) and do not constitute a divorce unless intended. It is difficult to determine the number of divorces without referring to the husband and inquiring about his intention.
A man divorcing his wife during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her is an innovated divorce ( bid'i), yet it is valid according to the majority of jurists.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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