Is the husband's claim valid that there are differences in the rulings of divorce between Egypt and Qatar, and that his utterance of the word of divorce does not constitute a divorce in Qatar? And is the wife mistaken in denying herself to her husband after he uttered the word of divorce for the third time? And should the husband be believed if he claims that he was angry and did not know what he was saying when he uttered the word of divorce? And what is the limit of anger at which divorce does not occur?

Divorce is not affected by differences in countries or locations, but its branches may vary according to the different schools of thought (madhahib). What is apparent from the situation of the man mentioned is that he is toying with divorce, which is forbidden, as Allah Almighty says: "And do not take the verses of Allah in jest" (2:231). It has been reported that the Prophet ﷺ became angry with the Ash'aris for toying with divorce by saying: "I have divorced, I have taken back – this is not the divorce of Muslims." Since the matter involves dispute and contention, the ruling on it rests with the Sharia (definition) judge who can ascertain the facts and rule upon them.